Watching the Spurs-Suns game right now, the Spurs have gone into a "hack-a-Shaq" mode with 6 minutes left in the game, and it involves Oberto holding Shaq down the court until the refs call the foul, with Shaq not having the ball. I remember in the first round of the tournament Kentucky went after Dwight Burke. Here is my question, what is an intentional foul, if an obvious foul like that isn't? Should they just change the title of the foul "a ridiculously hard" foul? Just baffling how officials can see this and just call it a regular foul.
I completly agree. Wisconsin also fouled Burke off the ball to put him at the line.
I've seen some refs call it as an intentional and I've seen others not call it. There needs to be some kind of standard set. This rule needs to be clarified instead of the watching the coaches in coaches box.
I agree. Intentional foul is a foul that is not going for the ball. Should be an intentional...